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Showing posts with label Bank Examination Solved Papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Bank Examination Solved Papers. Show all posts

Friday, August 20, 2010

State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper (Solved)





SBI

State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper

SET -4

Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Keshava, the washerman had a donkey. They worked together all day, and Keshava would pour out his heart to the doneky. One day, Keshava was walking home with the donkey when he felt tired. He tied the donkey to a tree and sat down to rest for a while, near a school. A window was open, and through it, a teacher could be heard scolding the students. ‘Here I am, trying to turn you donkeys into human beings, but you just won’t study !’ As soon as Keshava heard these words, his ears pricked up. A man who could actually turn donkeys into humans ! This was the answer to his prayers. Impatiently, he waited for school to be over that day. when everyone had gone home, and only the teacher remained behind to check some papers, Keshava entered the classroom.

‘How can I help you ?’ asked the teacher. Keshava scratched his head and said, ‘I heard what you said to the children. This donkey is my companion. If you made it human, we could have such good times together.’ The teacher decided to trick Keshava. He pretended to think for a while and then said, ‘Give me six months and it will cost you a thousand rupees.’ The washerman agreed and rushed home to get the money. He then left the donkey in the teacher’s care.

After the six months were up, Keshava went to the teacher. The teacher had been using the donkey for his own work. Not wanting to give it up, he said, ‘Oh, your donkey became so clever that it ran away. He is the headman of the next village.’ When Keshava reached the next village he found the village elders sitting under a tree, discussing serious problems. How surprised they were when Keshava marched up to the headman, grabbed his arm and said, ‘How dare you ? You think you are so clever that you ran away ? Come home at once !’

The headman understood someone had played a trick on Keshava. ‘I am not your donkey !’ he said. ‘Go find the sage in the forest.’ Keshava found the sage sitting under a tree with his eyes closed, deep in meditation. He crept up and grabbed the sage’s beard. ‘Come back home now !’ he shouted. The startled sage somehow calmed Keshava. When he heard what had happened, he had a good laugh. Then he told the washerman kindly, ‘The teacher made a fool of you. Your donkey must be still with him. Go and take it back from him. Try to make some real friends, who will talk with you and share your troubles. A donkey will never be able to do that !’ Keshava returned home later that day with his donkey, sadder and wiser.

1. Which of the following can be said about the teacher ?
(A) He had the ability to transform animals into human beings
(B) He took advantage of Keshava’s simple nature
(C) He had plotted with the village headman to cheat Keshava
(D) He enjoyed teaching children though he was poorly paid
(E) He was honest and used Keshava’s money to care for the donkey
Ans : (B)

2. Why did Keshava talk to his donkey while working ?
(A) He wanted to practise his communication skills because he wanted to make friends
(B) To entertain himself because he found his work monotonous
(C) The donkey helped him to find answers to his problems
(D) He regarded the doneky as his friend and confided in him
(E) He believed the donkey to be a human being in disguise
Ans : (E)

3. How did Keshava get his donkey back ?
(A) He threatened to take the teacher to the village elders
(B) The sage forced the teacher to release the donkey
(C) He asked the village headman for help
(D) The teacher returned it on learning that Keshava had learnt his lesson
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

4. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) The donkey was over burdened by the teacher.
(b) The teacher was cunning by nature.
(c) The sage laughed at Keshava and treated him unkindly.
(A) Both (a) & (c)
(B) Both (b) & (c)
(C) Only (b)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. Why was Keshava keen to meet the teacher one day ?
(A) Keshava wanted to ask the teacher how to make his donkey a better companion
(B) He wanted to learn more prayers as he was devout
(C) He had been reliably informed that the teacher had changed donkeys into human beings
(D) He heeded the teacher’s words of advice and wanted to study
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. Why did Keshava interrupt the discussion among the village elders ?
(A) He did not agree with their views on different issues
(B) To confront the headman who had cheated him out of one thousand rupees
(C) He wanted them to get justice for him
(D) He was looking for the donkey and wanted to ask for directions
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

7. What made Keshava pull the sage’s beard ?
(A) He wanted to wake up the sage who was a sleep under the tree
(B) The headman requested him to move the sage from under the tree
(C) He wanted the sage to explain what had happened to the donkey
(D) He misunderstood the village headman and took the sage to be his donkey
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Why did the teacher ask Keshava to leave the donkey with him for six months ?
(a) He realised that the donkey would require a lot of training.
(b) To reduce Keshava’s dependence on the donkey.
(c) He wanted to rescue the donkey from Keshava who did not know to treat the donkey properly.
(A) None
(B) Only (b)
(C) Both (a) & (b)
(D) Only (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 9–10) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. trick
(A) joke
(B) skill
(C) mislead
(D) technique
(E) lunny
Ans : (C)

10. remained
(A) pending
(B) waited
(C) lasted
(D) survived
(E) continued
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–12) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. real
(A) false
(B) imitated
(C) dishonest
(D) imagine
(E) genuine
Ans : (A)

12. deep
(A) low
(B) distracted
(C) flat
(D) awake
(E) sleep
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 13–17) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is Required’, mark (E) as the answer.

13. The company has set up a foundation which helps students who do not have the necessary funds to study ahead.
(A) further to study
(B) of studying more
(C) to study onward
(D) for higher studies
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)

14. If this land is used to cultivate crops it will be additionally source of income for the villagers.
(A) a source of additional
(B) an additionally source
(C) an additional source
(D) additionally the source
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

15. Belonged to this cadre, you are eligible for facilities such as free air travel and accommodation.
(A) since you belong to
(B) whoever belongs
(C) for belonging to
(D) to belong in
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (A)

16. The bank has hired a consultant who will look into any issues which arise during the merger.
(A) is looking over
(B) will be looked after
(C) will look out
(D) looks down on
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

17. I had severe doubts about if I successfully run a company, but my father encouraged me.
(A) if I am successful in
(B) how should I successfully
(C) whether I could successfully
(D) that I would succeed to
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 18–22) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

18. RBI has attempted (A) to spend (B) financial (C) awareness (D) through this programme. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

19. In order to succeed (A) it is crucial (B) for an organisation to constantly (C) improve. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (E)

20. With some assistance (A) from her son she was enable (B) to settle (C) her debts (D) on time. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

21. Though the government initiated (A) a large sum (B) of money in the scheme (C) it was a failure. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)

22. We have prepared a detailed (A) report giving various (B) solutions (C) to resort (D) the problem. All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 23–27) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) I was pleased by their reaction.
(b) Writing my speech was easy, but I was unsure if I could motivate the employees to donate to those affected by the earthquake.
(c) Instead of throwing out their unusable articles, they had transferred them to my office in the name of donations.
(d) When a reputed company invited me to deliver a lecture on Corporate Social Responsibility, I agreed.
(e) It was an affluent company and the well dressed employees who met me afterwards promised to send lots of donations to my office.
(f) What I saw however when I opened the bags of ‘donations’ they had sent shocked me.

23. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (A)

24. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (E)

25. Which of the following should be t h e FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (A)

26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 28–32) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

28. He has travelled (A) / all over the world (B) / yet he speaks (C) / several languages fluently. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

29. A successful company is (A) / any that makes a good (B) / profit and provides (C) / high returns to its shareholders. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

30. The agreement on (A) / which all of us have (B) / worked so hard will (C) / be sign tomorrow. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

31. It is necessarily to maintain (A) / a record of all transactions (B) / in case the auditors (C) / want to see it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

32. Very few young trainees (A) / willingly undertake (B) / a posting to a branch (C) / located in a rural area. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 33–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Today, twenty-two years after the bank …(33)…, it has over a thousand branches all over the country and the staff …(34)… about twentythree lakh borrowers. We decided to operate …(35)… from conventional banks who would ask their clients to come to their office. Many people in rural areas found this …(36)…. Our bank is therefore based on the …(37)… that people should not come to the bank but that the bank should go to the people. Our loans are also …(38)… we give them for activities from candle making to tyre repair. We also keep …(39)… checks on the borrower through weekly visits. We do this to make certain that the family of the borrower is …(40)… from the loan.

33. (A) origin
(B) commence
(C) existed
(D) began
(E) inaugurated
Ans : (E)

34. (A) assemble
(B) cope
(C) interact
(D) deal
(E) handle
Ans : (E)

35. (A) differently
(B) similar
(C) reverse
(D) opposite
(E) identically
Ans : (A)

36. (A) worried
(B) upset
(C) panicking
(D) anxious
(E) threatening
Ans : (D)

37. (A) principle
(B) discipline
(C) opportunity
(D) chance
(E) advantage
Ans : (A)

38. (A) worth
(B) vary
(C) disburse
(D) contrast
(E) diver
Ans : (B)

39. (A) consistently
(B) regular
(C) often
(D) frequently
(E) daily
Ans : (B)

40. (A) benefiting
(B) serving
(C) welfare
(D) obliged
(E) progress
Ans : (A)

State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper (Solved)

SBI

State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper

SET -3

1. A keyboard is this kind of device—
(A) black
(B) input
(C) output
(D) word Processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. IT stands for—
(A) information Technology
(B) integrated Technology
(C) intelligent Technology
(D) interesting Technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers ?
(A) Personal Computers
(B) Supercomputers
(C) Laptops
(D) Notebooks
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. A collection of related information sorted and dealt with as a unit is a—
(A) disk
(B) data
(C) file
(D) floppy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as—
(A) pulling
(B) pushing
(C) downloading
(D) transferring
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. Which part of the computer helps to store information ?
(A) Disk drive
(B) Keyboard
(C) Monitor
(D) Printer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. ………………is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Executing
(D) Decoding
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. The role of a………generally is to determine a buyer’s needs and match it to the correct hardware and software.
(A) computer Scientist
(B) computer sales representative
(C) computer consultant
(D) corporate trainer
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following groups consist of only output devices ?
(A) Scanner, Printer, Monitor
(B) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor
(C) Mouse, Printer, Monitor
(D) Plotter, Printer, Monitor
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a—
(A) title bar
(B) button
(C) dialog box
(D) window
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. A(n)………contains commands that can be selected.
(A) pointer
(B) menu
(C) icon
(D) button
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. An error is also known as—
(A) bug
(B) debug
(C) cursor
(D) icon
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. Arithmetic Operations—
(A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to, or less than the other item
(B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or descending order
(C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT
(D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. Sending an e-mail is similar to—
(A) picturing an event
(B) narrating a story
(C) writing a letter
(D) creating a drawing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

15. Promotion in Marketing means—
(A) passing an examination
(B) elevation from one grade to another
(C) selling the products through various means
(D) selling the product in specific areas
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Microsoft Word is an example of—
(A) an operating system
(B) a processing device
(C) application software
(D) an input device
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. Sources of Sales Leads are—
(A) Data Mining
(B) Market Research
(C) Media Outlets
(D) Promotional Programs
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

18. Any data or instruction entered into the memory of a computer is considered as—
(A) storage
(B) output
(C) input
(D) information
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. Which part of the computer displays the work done ?
(A) RAM
(B) printer
(C) monitor
(D) ROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

20. One of the methods for Market Monitoring is—
(A) to watch TV serials
(B) to discuss with other sales persons
(C) to monitor media outlets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. Market Expansion means—
(A) hiring more staff
(B) firing more staff
(C) buying more products
(D) buying more companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

22. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a—
(A) program
(B) command
(C) user response
(D) processor
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. Effective marketing helps in—
(A) developing new products
(B) creating a competitive environment
(C) building demand for products
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ?
(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Programs
(D) Output
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. A Call in Marketing means—
(A) to phone the customers
(B) to visit the customers
(C) to visit the marketing site
(D) to call on prospective customers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Delivery Channel means—
(A) maternity wards
(B) handing over the products to the buyers
(C) places where products are made available to the buyers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Processing involves—
(A) inputting data into a computer system
(B) transforming input into output
(C) displaying output in a useful manner
(D) providing relevant answers
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

28. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking.
(A) All the customers
(B) All the educated customers
(C) All the computer educated customers
(D) Only creditors
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

29. Innovation mean—
(A) Product Designing
(B) New ideas
(C) Impulse
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan.
(A) All the customers
(B) Students
(C) Only poor students
(D) Students having promising educational track record
(E) All of these
Ans : (B)

31. Service after sale is not the function of—
(A) Marketing staff
(B) Seller
(C) Director of the company
(D) Employees of the company
(E) All of the above are wrong
Ans : (A)

32. If done through………the rural marketing would be more effective.
(A) fairs
(B) village fairs
(C) door to door campaign
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. Market Survey means—
(A) Market Research
(B) Market Planning
(C) Marketing Strategies
(D) Market Monitering
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

34. ………can be done through digital Banking ?
(A) Mobile phone
(B) Internet
(C) Telephone
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. A good seller should have the following quality/qualities ?
(A) Devotion to the work
(B) Submissive
(C) Sympathy
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. The rural marketing is not required because—
(A) rural people do not understand marketing
(B) its not practical from the cost point of view
(C) it is sheer wastage of time
(D) All are wrong
(E) All are correct
Ans : (D)

37. Planned-cost service means—
(A) Costly products
(B) Extra profit on the same cost
(C) Extra work by seller
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. Internet marketing means—
(A) Self-marketing
(B) Core Groups monitering
(C) Employees marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

39. The aim of successful marketing is—
(A) to increase the sale
(B) to increase the profit
(C) to increase the output of sellers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. The networking becomes……through networking.
(A) very difficult
(B) dull
(C) easy
(D) has no role in marketing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper (Solved)





SBI
State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper

SET -2

Directions—(Q. 1–6) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ?
(A) 1156
(B) 1200
(C) 1188
(D) 1176
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. (786 × 64) ÷ 48 = ?
(A) 1050
(B) 1024
(C) 1048
(D) 1036
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. 3·5 + 11·25 × 4·5 – 32·5 = ?
(A) 18·275
(B) 21·625
(C) 32·375
(D) 25·45
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. (2640 ÷ 48) × (2240 ÷ 35) = ?
(A) 3520
(B) 3515
(C) 3495
(D) 3490
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. 7414 + 3698 + 1257 + 1869 = ?
(A) 14328
(B) 14438
(C) 13428
(D) 13248
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. (98360 + 25845 – 36540) ÷ 2500 = ?
(A) 36·585
(B) 30·082
(C) 32·085
(D) 35·066
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 7–11) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?

7. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 169
(A) 100
(B) 64
(C) 81
(D) 121
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. 3, 23, 43, ?, 83, 103
(A) 33
(B) 53
(C) 63
(D) 73
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. 748, 737, 715, 682, 638, ?
(A) 594
(B) 572
(C) 581
(D) 563
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. 121, 117, 108, 92, 67, ?
(A) 31
(B) 29
(C) 41
(D) 37
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

11. 50, 26, 14, ?, 5, 3·5
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. The ratio of ducks and frogs in a pond is 37 : 39 respectively. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 152. What is the number of frogs in the pond ?
(A) 148
(B) 152
(C) 156
(D) 144
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a rtio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. If the number of employees in the three Companies is increased by 25%, 30% and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively ?
(A) 13 : 10 : 18
(B) 10 : 13 : 17
(C) 13 : 15 : 18
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

14. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 233·5 and the average of last two numbers is 271. What is the third number ?
(A) 64
(B) 56
(C) 106
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

15. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonali’s monthly income ?
(A) Rs. 42,500
(B) Rs. 38,800
(C) Rs. 40,000
(D) Rs. 35,500
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘ARISE’ be arranged ?
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 180
(D) 120
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. What approximate amount of compound interest can be obtaied on an amount of Rs. 9650 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years ?
(A) Rs. 1737
(B) Rs. 1920
(C) Rs. 1720
(D) Rs. 1860
(E) Rs. 1843
Ans : (E)

18. A milkman sells 120 litres of milk for Rs. 3360 and he sells 240 litres of milk for Rs. 6120. How much concession does the trader give per litre of milk, when he sells 240 litres of milk ?
(A) Rs. 2
(B) Rs. 3·5
(C) Rs. 2·5
(D) Rs. 1·5
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. When 3626 is divided by the square of a number and the answer so obtained is multiplied by 32, the final answer obtained is 2368. What is the number ?
(A) 7
(B) 36
(C) 49
(D) 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 14. The difference between the first digit and the second digit of the two digit number is 2. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?
(A) 56
(B) 48
(C) 45
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. A car runs at the speed of 50 kms per hour when not serviced and runs at 60 kms/hr. when serviced. After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 6 hours. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced ?
(A) 8·2 hours
(B) 6·5 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 7·2 hours
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 22–24) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

22. (4863 + 1174 + 2829) ÷ 756 = ?
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) 9
(E) 22
Ans : (C)

23. 37·35 + 13·064 × 3·46 = ?
(A) 89
(B) 83
(C) 76
(D) 79
(E) 85
Ans : (B)

24. 54 × 746 ÷ 32 = ?
(A) 1259
(B) 1268
(C) 1196
(D) 1248
(E) 1236
Ans : (A)

State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper (Solved)





SBI

State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper

SET -1

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)

12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :

Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3

Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Union Bank of India PO Exam Paper : Held on 7-9-2008 (English Language)





Union Bank of India
Union Bank of India PO Exam Paper : Held on 7-9-2008 (English Language)

Note : Answers Given Below! (END)
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Over the past few decades, many Asian nations transformed from poverty into global competitors. From 2003 to 2007, Asian economies expanded at an average annual rate of 8•1%, triple that of advanced economies. Over the same period, inflation in Asia averaged only about 3•5%. But Asia could be facing turbulent economic times. In May, the average inflation rate throughout the region reached nearly 7%, led by spikes in oil and food prices. In India, inflation jumped to an 11•6% annual rate in June, according to the latest government figures, the highest in 13 years.

Policymakers and central bankers are forced to raise interest rates and limit credit to get inflation under control. But these same measures suppress the investment and consumption that generates growth. The combination of slowing growth and soaring inflation makes economic policy-making tricky. Inflation stirs up the middle classes because it can quickly erase years of hardwon personal gains. Inflation is cruel to the poor, because families have to spend a larger share of their meagre incomes on necessities. In the Philippines, farmers, unable to afford fuel for tractors, use water buffaloes to plough their fields.

But to avoid unrest, leaders cannot blindly adopt rigid anti-inflation measures. Voters won’t hesitate to remove from office any politician who doesn’t deliver the goods. So they cannot overreact to the inflation threat and scale down economic growth in the process. Developing nations need to grow quickly to create jobs and increase incomes for their large populations. With prices soaring, doing nothing is not an option. Most central banks in Asia have started raising interest rates. The Reserve Bank of India increased its benchmark rate twice last month to a six year high of 8•5%.

The challenge is especially difficult because currently, inflation is not of domestic origin. Prices are being driven higher by a global surge in oil and food prices, which individual governments can do little to control. Of course, inflation is not just a problem in Asia. World Bank President Robert Zoellick called rising food and oil prices a man-made ‘catastrophe’ that could quickly reverse the gains made in overcoming poverty over the past seven years. For now, though, there is more talk than action on the international front, so Asian governments are on their own.

Even though inflation throughout the region is likely to continue to rise in coming months, no one is expecting an economic calamity. According to the Asian Development Bank Asian countries have large hard currency reserves and relatively healthy banks, and so are far better prepared to absorb external shocks than they were during the region’s last recession ten years ago. Asian policymakers have learned their lessons and are more alert.

1. Which of the following can be said about Asian economies during the period from 2003- 2007 ?
1. Though inflation was rising at the time politicians did not pay much attention.
2. Many of the poor countries were able to compete internationally.
3. The growth rate of Asian countries was facilitated by growth in advanced countries.
(A) All 1, 2, and 3
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these

2. Which of the following is not an anti-inflation measure being used by Asian countries ?
1. Increase in benchmark interest rate by a central bank.
2. Checks on lending.
3. Subsidising fuel for farmers.
(A) Only 3
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Both 2 and 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these

3. What makes it difficult for Asian countries to control inflation ?
(A) Restrictions by organizations like the Asian Development Bank
(B) Governments are indecisive and adopt counterproductive measures
(C) The problem is global in nature, not restricted to their individual countries
(D) Countries have never faced a financial crisis
(E) Economic growth rate cannot occur in the absence of inflation

4. Why are experts not very concerned about the impact of inflation on Asian economies ?
1. Asian countries have not maintained substantial hard currency reserves.
2. The condition of Asian banks is currently both stable and strong.
3. The Asian Development Bank will bail them out of any trouble.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these

5. What is the author’s advice to politicians regarding the handling of inflation ?
(A) They should focus on preventing agitations among their citizens not implementing antiinflation measures
(B) They ought to implement anti-inflation measures even at the cost of losing office
(C) They must focus on maintaining high economic growth rate as inflation will taper off on its own
(D) Countries should handle the problem independently and not collectively
(E) None of these

6. What could the impact of stringent inflation measures be ?
(A) Increased consumption as families spend a larger part of their income on essential goods
(B) Politicians may be voted out of power
(C) Economic growth rate remains constant
(D) Oil prices within the country remain stable despite high global prices
(E) None of these

7. Why is high economic growth necessary for developing countries ?
(A) To catch up with the growth rate of the advanced countries
(B) To sustain their economies despite the ill effects of inflation
(C) To provide better educational opportunities to their citizens
(D) To create employment opportunities for citizens
(E) None of these

8. Why has inflation been referred to as a ‘catastrophe’ ?
(A) Prices of essential commodities are unaffordable for all
(B) Our past efforts to reduce poverty will be nullified
(C) Governments are unstable and do not take stringent decisions
(D) It has divided countries rather than ensuring co-operation among them
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
1. Growth rate in advanced countries was low so the effects of inflation were not felt.
2. Closing the economy to global markets will reduce inflation.
3. India has been the most severely affected by inflation.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

10. Which of the following factors was responsible for inflation in India ?
(A) Reserve Bank India raising the interest rates very frequently
(B) High population growth
(C) Sudden rise in prices of oil worldwide
(D) Reckless competition with China
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. stirs
(A) trembles
(B) moves
(C) mixes
(D) inspires
(E) agitates

12. scale
(A) descent
(B) climb
(C) hindrance
(D) cut
(E) measure

13. origin
(A) ancestry
(B) source
(C) inauguration
(D) down
(E) heritage

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. turbulent
(A) quiet
(B) rest
(C) soothes
(D) stormy
(E) lawful

15. gains
(A) decreases
(B) fails
(C) deprives
(D) frauds
(E) losses

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. The main objective of the workshop has made children aware of Western classical music.
(A) will make children aware
(B) is to make children aware
(C) is making aware children
(D) awareness of children
(E) No correction required

17. Afraid of missing her train and was late for the meeting, Sunita arrived an hour early at the station.
(A) but later for
(B) and been late to
(C) after being late
(D) and being late for
(E) No correction required

18. As a famous historian he has travelled around the world giving lectures on rare subjects.
(A) rarely to subjects
(B) of rare subject
(C) with rarest of subject
(D) in subjects rarely
(E) No correction required

19. The stadium wherever the opening ceremony will be held next month, is equipped with the latest facilities.
(A) in the opening ceremony
(B) which the ceremony will open
(C) where the opening ceremony
(D) that the opening ceremony
(E) No correction required

20. There will be a trend of unseasonal rainfall in April, in recent years.
(A) There has been
(B) It has been
(C) There is being
(D) It may have been
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

21. A committee has been…………..to…………..the transformation of the city into an international finance centre.
(A) constituted, convert
(B) appointed, oversee
(C) converged, evaluate
(D) inducted, change
(E) inaugurated, determine

22. Keeping in mind the…………..to develop the sector the government has………….. solicited foreign investment.
(A) importance, never
(B) proposal, forcibly
(C) objective, wanted
(D) view, discretely
(E) need, actively

23. In his speech he vowed to…………..the four billion unbanked individuals across the world into the…………..of financial inclusion.
(A) represent, sphere
(B) target, area
(C) bring, realm
(D) engage, achievement
(E) convince, era

24. Although he puts in…………..of overtime and takes few holidays, he…………..cannot support his family.
(A) sufficient, however
(B) lot, besides
(C) much, thus
(D) plenty, still
(E) frequency, yet

25. They have been…………..on incentives to…………..these practices are implemented at grass root level.
(A) relying, ensure
(B) improving, secure
(C) advocating, confirm
(D) debating, necessitate
(E) focusing, display

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. It was a cycling race launched in 1903, by Henri Desgrange, a magazine editor in Paris.
2. The Tour de France is a test of human endurance.
3. His idea worked and the magazine boomed.
4. His aim was to boost the circulation of his magazine.
5. He wanted to achieve this by covering every stage of the three week long, 3,500 kilometre long cycling race.
6. Till today the race remains more popular than he could ever have dreamed.

26. Which of the following should be the first sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

27. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

28. Which of the following should be the third sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

29. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6

30. Which of the following should be the sixth (Last) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letters of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. On account of the week (A) / long strike the factory (B) / was forced to close and (C) / next month’s shipment will delay. (D) No error. (E)

32. Since the US economy experiences (A) / a recession many Asian countries (B) / are likely to have (C) / reduced growth rates this year. (D) No error. (E)

33. Oil is now so expensive that (A) / India will have to cut subsidies (B) / instead face running out (C) / of funds to import oil. (D) No error. (E)

34. It is unlikely that you will (A) / find a more qualified and experience (B) / candidate than Mr. Prasad (C) / for the post of President. (D) No error. (E)

35. On account of the rising (A) / costs many people are (B) / finding it difficult (C) / to feed their families. (D) No error. (E)

36. By marketing agriculture (A) / products well, we (B) / can ensure that (C) / farmers make a good profit. (D) No error. (E)

37. The promotion means (A) /that you may be (B) / post in Chennai (C) / from next month. (D) No error. (E)

38. This project is (A) / too big to (B) / undertake successfully at (C) / such short of notice. (D) No error. (E)

39. When our company was (A) / faced financial difficulties (B) / the training budget was (C) / the first to be cut. (D) No error. (E)

40. Conservationists believe that (A)/better management of national parks (B)/is the only way to save (C)/India’s tiger population from extinction. (D) No error. (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

In July 2008, one of the most inspiring leaders of our times, will …(41)… his ninetieth birthday. Nelson Mandela retired from politics in 1999, but he has remained …(42)…, continuing his work through the Nelson Mandela Foundation. The foundation has launched an Aids awareness campaign, 46664, named …(43)… Mandela’s prison number. He has also set up a scholarship programme whose …(44)… was to promote leadership among young Africans.

During the 1990s, …(45)… I worked with Mr. Mandela on his autobiography “Long Walk to Freedom”, I …(46)… his leadership first hand. During his election campaign we were on board a plane discussing his book. Twenty minutes …(47)… to landing the engine failed. Many began to panic. The only thing that …(48)… them was looking at Mandela, who was reading his paper as if he was a passenger on a morning train to work. The plane landed safely and when we got into the car taking us to the hotel he …(49)… to me, “I was terrified on the plane !” As a leader he realized he was a model for others and this gave him the strength to …(50)… over his own fear.

41. (A) tribute
(B) remember
(C) honour
(D) celebrate
(E) rejoice

42. (A) resigned
(B) active
(C) influenced
(D) participant
(E) reserved

43. (A) by
(B) with
(C) after
(D) as
(E) thereafter

44. (A) wish
(B) pursuit
(C) result
(D) plot
(E) aim

45. (A) when
(B) that
(C) period
(D) later
(E) alongside

46. (A) felt
(B) acquainted
(C) experienced
(D) underwent
(E) learned

47. (A) before
(B) sooner
(C) close
(D) prior
(E) advance

48. (A) calmed
(B) soothing
(C) composed
(D) restraint
(E) discipline

49. (A) speaks
(B) confided
(C) confidentially
(D) entrusted
(E) assured

50. (A) success
(B) overcame
(C) dominate
(D) victory
(E) triumph

Answers

1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (E) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (E) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (E) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (E) 31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (E) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (E) 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (E) 45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (E)

Numerical Ability Sample Questions For Bank Clerk Exam Preparation

Numarical Ability Sample Questions For Bank Clerk Exam Preparation

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes
2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024
3. Find the number missing at question mark:
10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes
5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45
8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400
12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40
17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) ½
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27
31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57
46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21
48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750
49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31

Answers

1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A 2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A 3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B 4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C 5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A 6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C 7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B 8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D 9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B 10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B

Vijaya Bank General Awareness Solved Paper Year 2010





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Vijaya Bank General Awareness Solved Paper Year 2010

1. How many such pairs of digits are there in number ‘36725918’ each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the numbers ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

2. What should come next in the following number series ?
6 8 8 1 2 6 8 6 1 2 3 6 8 8 1 2 3 4 6 8 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 ?
(A) 6
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. In a certain code PAGE is written as ‘3%7@’, SORE is written as 8©9@. How is ‘PEAS’ written in that code ?
(A) 3@©8
(B) 3@%9
(C) 3@%8
(D) 3%@8
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. If ‘@’ means ‘x, ‘©’ means ‘÷’, ‘%’ means ‘+’ and ‘$’ means ‘–’ then ………
6 % 12 © 3 @ 8 $ 3 = ?
(A) 37
(B) 35
(C) 39
(D) 33
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. In a certain code ‘MOUSE’ is written as ‘PRUQC’. How is ‘SHIFT’ written in that code ?
(A) VKIRD
(B) VKIDR
(C) VJIDR
(D) VIKRD
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

7. Among A, B, C, D and E each scoring different marks in a test, C scored more than D but not as much as E. E scored more than A who scored less than B. Who score third highest marks ?
(A) B
(B) A
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. ‘K’ walked 5 metre towards North, took a left turn and walked for 10 metre. He then took a right turn and walked for 20 metre, and again took right turn and walked 10 metre. How far he is from the starting point ?
(A) 20 metre
(B) 15 metre
(C) 25 metre
(D) 30 metre
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. Pointing to a girl, Mr. Suraj said “she is the only daughter of my father’s son-in-law”. How is the girl related to Mr. Suraj ?
(A) Niece
(B) Cousin
(C) Sister
(D) Daughter
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (A)

10. Sneha correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is before 16th June but after 11th June whereas her younger brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 13th June but before 18th June and her elder brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is on an even date. On what date in June is definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) Sixteenth
(B) Twelfth
(C) Fourteenth or Sixteenth
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

11. How many such digits are there in the number ‘37152869’ each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CONFIRM’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

13. ‘KN’ is related to ‘QT’ in the same way as ‘DG’ related to ……….
(A) JN
(B) IM
(C) JM
(D) IN
(E) IL
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 14–16) Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below :
518 849 365 783 291

14. If the positions of first and third digits in each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of third highest number ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

15. If the first digit in all the numbers starting with an even digit is replaced by a number preceding it, then which of the following will be the sum of the first digit of the resulting highest and the lowest numbers ?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 6
(E) 13
Ans : (E)

16. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 849
(B) 365
(C) 783
(D) 291
(E) 518
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 17–22) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
Q 9 K # P @ 3 E N S A C ? G © U M 7 F I V % 4 Z 8 Y

17. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the right end ?
(A) E
(B) P
(C) I
(D) C
(E) @
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifth to the left of ‘V’ ?
(A) 3
(B) A
(C) N
(D) S
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

19. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) V
(B) 4
(C) %
(D) E
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) IM%
(B) CNG
(C) 3#N
(D) UGC
(E) GAU
Ans : (D)

21. How many such symbols are there in above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by an alphabet and immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

22. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) Two
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 23–28) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the givenstatements disregarding commonly known facts.

23. Statements :
All coins are glasses.
Some glasses are cups.
Some cups are boxes.
All boxes are pins.
Conclusions :
I. Some coins are cups.
II. Some pins are glasses.
III. Some cups are pins.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. Statements :
Some pens are pencils.
All pencils are caps.
All caps are buses.
Some buses are trains.
Conclusions :
I. Some trains are caps.
II. Some pens are buses.
III. Some pencils are trains.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) None follow
(E) All I, II and III follow
Ans : (B)

25. Statements :
All shirts are skirts..
All skirts are banks.
All banks are roads.
All roads are brushes.
Conclusions :
I. All banks are skirts.
II. All roads are banks.
III. Some brushes are shirts.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None follows
Ans : (B)

26. Statements :
Some fishes are plates.
Some plates are spoons.
Some spoons are plants.
All plants are crows.
Conclusions :
I. Some plates are crows.
II. Some crows are spoons.
III. Some plants are spoons.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) None follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) Either I or III follows
Ans : (D)

27. Statements :
Some eggs are hens.
Some hens are ducks.
All ducks are pigeons.
All pigeons are sparrows.
Conclusions :
I. All ducks are sparrows.
II. No egg is duck.
III. Some sparrows are hens.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) All I, II and III follow
Ans : (D)

28. Statements :
No man is tiger.
No tiger is cat.
Some cats are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions :
I. Some tigers are cats.
II. Some cats are men.
III. Some lions are men.
(A) None follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only I follows
(E) Only II and III follow
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 29–33) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P © Q’ means P is not smaller than Q
‘P * Q’ means P is not greater than Q
‘P @ Q’ means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
‘P $ Q’ means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
‘P % Q’ means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answers accordingly.

29. Statements :
K © L, L % O, O @ M, M * N
Conclusions : I. N © O
II. M $ L
III. K * N
IV. L @ N
(A) Only II is true
(B) Only I and II are true
(C) Only I is true
(D) Either I or II is true
(E) None is true
Ans : (B)

30. Statements :
A * B, B $ C, C % D, D © E
Conclusions : I. D $ A
II. B $ D
III. E % C
IV. A @ E
(A) Only I is ture
(B) Only either I or II is true
(C) Only I and IV are true
(D) None is true
(E) Only IV is true
Ans : (D)

31. Statements :
F $ P, P @ R, R © S, S % T
Conclusions : I. R % F
II. S * P
III. P © T
IV. S % F
(A) Only I, II and III are true
(B) Only I and II are true
(C) Only III and IV are true
(D) Only I, II and IV are true
(E) All are true
Ans : (D)

32. Statements :
G % H, H * I, I $ J, J @ K
Conclusions : I. G % I
II. G % J
III. K $ I
IV. H * J
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only I, II and III are true
(D) Only either I or II and III are true
(E) All are true
Ans : (A)

33. Statements :
V @ W, W % X, X * Y, Y $ Z
Conclusions : I. Z $ X
II. Y © V
III. W % Y
IV. Y @ W
(A) Only I and III are true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) None is true
(E) Only III and IV are true
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 34–40) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is fourth to the left of F who is fifth to right of E. D is third to the right of A who is not immediate neighbour of E of F. B is third to left of H who is not immediate neighbour of E.

34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) HFE
(B) DCG
(C) BHF
(D) AEF
(E) CGB
Ans : (D)

35. Who is between D and E ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) A
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following pairs are sitting between A and D ?
(A) FB
(B) GB
(C) FG
(D) FE
(E) GE
Ans : (C)

37. Who is third to the right of E ?
(A) B
(B) F
(C) D
(D) G
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

38. Who is to the immediate right of A ?
(A) G
(B) B
(C) F
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. What is D’s position with respect to B ?
(a) Immediate right
(b) Fourth to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Immediate left
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) Only (d)
(E) Only either (a) or (d)
Ans : (D)

40. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate left of the second person ?
(A) CH
(B) GA
(C) BD
(D) FG
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Bank Of India (BOI) General Awareness Solved Paper Year 2010





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Bank Of India (BOI) General Awareness Solved Paper Year 2010

1. The President of the Palestine recently emphasized that his country will not resume peace talks until Israel fully halts settlement building in the—
(A) West Bank
(B) Haifa
(C) Gaza
(D) Tel-Aviv-Yafo
(E) Jerusalem
Ans : (A)

2. All the major world leaders gathered in Berlin in Nov. 2009 to mark the 20th anniversary of—
(A) European Union
(B) NATO
(C) Fall of Berlin Wall
(D) G-20
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Now almost all major newspaper journals and magazines are printing research reports giving the analysis and/or the causes of the sub-prime crisis which gripped America and the world a few months back. Which of the following was/were amongst the common cause(s) of the same ?
(They were present in almost all the economies)
(1) The problem was that investors erroneously believed property prices were quite predictable and built a whole edifice of financial planning on the back of the American housing market.
(2) Credit rating agencies all over the world were not equipped to forecast the effect of sub-prime crisis on world economy. Agencies were over-confident and did not react in time.
(3) Neither USA nor other countries took a note of the crisis in time. In fact they ignored it for quite some time.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)

4. If you see a big hoarding at a prominent public place, the punch line of which says ‘We All Were Born Free’; ‘We All Have Equal Rights’, in all probability, the hoarding is put up by—
(A) National Commission for Farmers
(B) National Human Rights Commission
(C) Directorate of Income Tax
(D) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(E) Union Public Service Commission
Ans : (B)

5. Nowadays we frequently read news items about ‘Derivatives’ as used in the world of finance and money market. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describes what a derivative is and how it affects money/finance markets ?
(1) Derivatives enable individuals and companies to insure themselves against financial risk.
(2) Derivatives are like fixed deposits in a bank and are the safest way to invest one’s idle money lying in a bank.
(3) Derivatives are the financial instruments which were used in India even during the British Raj.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Many a time we read in the newspapers that RBI has changed or revised a particular ratio/rate by a few basis points. What is basis point ?
(A) Ten per cent of one hundredth point
(B) One hundredth of 1%
(C) One hundredth of 10%
(D) Ten per cent of 1000
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following issues cannot come under the purview of the functioning of the Human Rights Commission of a country ?
(A) Racial Discrimination
(B) Treatment to Prisoners of War
(C) Human Trafficking
(D) Child Abuse
(E) Climate Migration
Ans : (E)

8. A prominent international weekly sometime ago printed a caption on its cover page which read ‘Brazil Takes Off’. Other major newspapers/magazines also printed similar stories/articles in their publications at that time. Why have magazines/newspapers decided to talk about Brazil these days ?
(1) All major economies of the world have been taking time to recover from the recession but Brazil was one of those which was ‘Last in and First out’.
(2) Brazil is a member of BRIC but unlike China it is a democracy, unlike India, it has no hostile neighbours, no insurgents and unlike Russia it exports more oil and arms and treats foreign investors with more respect.
(3) Brazil is the world’s second largest booming economy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)

9. Which of the following countries has conferred the honour of ‘Legion d’ honneur’ on Bharat Ratna Lata Mangeshkar ?
(A) Germany
(B) Norway
(C) Japan
(D) U.K.
(E) France
Ans : (E)

10. Expand the term NREGA—
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(B) National Rural Electrification Governing Agency
(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(D) New Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. The Rajya Sabha has recently cleared the new poll bill. Which one of the following amendment(s) is/are made in this bill ?
It has proposed -
(A) Increasing the security deposits to more than double
(B) Restricting the publication of exit polls
(C) Ensuring speedy disposal of electoral disputes
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A), (B) and (C)
Ans : (D)

12. The market in which long term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is commonly known as—
(A) Commodities Exchange
(B) Capital Market
(C) Bull Market
(D) Bullion Market
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. Which one of the following was India’s top destination for exports during 2009 ?
(A) UAE
(B) USA
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)

14. Which one of the following will be the first High Court in India, to implement the concept of ‘ecourts’ ?
(A) Delhi
(B) A.P.
(C) Chennai
(D) Kolkata
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. Amongst the following, which one of the following sectors provides the highest contribution in Industrial Production Index ?
(A) Crude Oil
(B) Petro Refinery Products
(C) Electricity
(D) Coal
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Amongst the following sectors, which sector/segment has shown the highest per cent growth in the current fiscal ?
(A) Mining
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Electricity, gas and water supply
(D) Banking and Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. As per the reports published in newspapers, India purchased around 200 tonnes of gold (almost half the quantity of gold put up for sale) in Sept. 2009. India purchased this gold from which of the following organizations ?
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) International Gold Council
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

18. World Trade Organisation (WTO)’s ministerial meeting was organized in which of the following cities recently ?
(A) Geneva
(B) Washington
(C) Paris
(D) Port of Spain
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. In which one of the following countries, was the recent Commonwealth Meet (CHOGAM) held ?
(A) Trinidad
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Jamaica
(E) U.K.
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following decisions taken by the RBI will promote the concept of financial inclusion in the country ?
(A) To appoint some additional entities as business correspondents
(B) To collect reasonable service charges from the customer in a transparent manner for providing the services.
(C) To ask the banks to open at least 50 new accounts daily in non serviced areas.
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

21. For recapitalization of Public Sector Banks, the World Bank has decided to provide funds to India. These funds will be made available in the form of—
(A) Soft Loan
(B) Term Loan
(C) Emergency aid
(D) Grants
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. Citizens of which one of he following age-groups (in years) are covered under the New Pension System (NPS) ?
(A) 18–50
(B) 21–55
(C) 25–55
(D) 18–60
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ (RSBY) ?
(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households
(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households
(C) To provide both life and health insurance cover to rural household
(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. Which one of the following had set up the N. R. Narayana Murthy Committee on issues relating to Corporate Governance ?
(A) SEBI
(B) RBI
(C) CII
(D) Ministry of Finance, GOI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. The proceeds of the disinvestment of profitable public sector units will be used for which of the following purposes ?
(A) Expansion of existing capacity of PSEs
(B) Modernisation of PSEs
(C) Opening of new PSEs
(D) Meeting the expenditure for various social sector schemes
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Which one of the following is the target fixed for fiscal deficit in the year 2010-2011 ?
(A) 3•5%
(B) 4•0%
(C) 5•5%
(D) 5•0%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Which one of the following companies is the largest producer of natural gas in the country ?
(A) ONGC
(B) OIL
(C) Cairn India
(D) RIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Which one of the following states has sought a package of Rs. 500 crores ($ 100 million) for its Rural Poverty Reduction Programme ?
(A) M.P.
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) A.P.
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. Chinese objections have stalled the road work at the village of Demchok, on the Indian side of the line of control. In which one of the following states is this village located ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

30. Constitutionally, which one of the following can levy Service Tax ?
(A) Union Govt. only
(B) State Govt. only
(C) Union Territory Govt. only
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

31. In the proposed low cost pension scheme, which one of the following has been made responsible for maintaining of the records of pension account of an individual ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) National Securities Depositories Ltd. (NSDL)
(C) Stock Holding Corporation of India
(D) RBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. Which one of the following is/are implication(s) of large inflow of foreign exchange into the country ?
1. It makes monetary management difficult for RBI.
2. It creates money supply, asset bubbles and inflation.
3. It weakens the competitiveness of Indian exports.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

33. The Central Banks of which one of the following countries has offered $ 115 billion emergency credit to support its economy hit by falling prices and also to strengthen its currency ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) U.K.
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) The Golden Gate
(B) A House for Mr. Biswas
(C) 2 States
(D) White Tiger
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. NTPC Ltd. is in the process of exploring opportunities to source coal from overseas. In which one of the following countries has the NTPC identified two new coal mines ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Australia
(C) South Korea
(D) Indonesia
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. Which of the following organizations has raised its loan amount to India to make it US $ 7 billion in 2009-10 fiscal ?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Bank
(D) European Union
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. Who amongst the following cricket players became the first to score 17000 runs in One Day Internationals ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) Stephen Fleming
(C) Ricky Ponting
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. The Govt. of India has decided to use the Core Banking System of banks to ensure proper usage of funds provided for which of its following programmes ?
(A) Literacy Mission
(B) Pradhanmantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) National Health Mission
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. Famous Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for exemplary work in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Literature
(C) Science & Technology
(D) Social Service
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

40. The Reverse Mortgage Scheme was launched by some organizations a few years back. This was done to help which of the following sections of society ?
(A) Beneficiaries of the NREGA
(B) People living Below Poverty Line
(C) Youngsters
(D) Senior Citizens
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. The organization of the South East Asian countries is known as—
(A) OPEC
(B) ASEAN
(C) NATO
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SAARC
Ans : (B)

42. ‘Miss Earth 2009’ title has been conferred upon—
(A) Alejandra Pedrajas
(B) Sandra Saifert
(C) Jessica Barboza
(D) Larissa Ramos
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following countries became the third largest producer of Steel in the world in 2009 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Japan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

44. The Foreign Trade policy is announced recently by the Govt. of India. Which of the following ministries/agencies announce the same ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Export Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
(C) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(D) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. Irina Bokova has taken over as the Chief of the—
(A) ILO
(B) UNICEF
(C) OPEC
(D) UNO
(E) UNESCO
Ans : (E)

46. Dorjee Khandu has taken over as the Chief Minister of—
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Assam
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football ?
(A) Caddy
(B) Cutback
(C) Mid-on
(D) Love
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Which of the following is considered a Non Food Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Bajra
(D) Rice
(E) Jute
Ans : (E)

49. Who amongst the following was the Prime Minister of Nepal immediately prior to Madhav Kumar Nepal ?
(A) Ram Baran Yadav
(B) Pushpakamal Dahal
(C) Girija Prasad Koirala
(D) Mahendra Kumar Suryavanshi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

50. The 10th India-European Summit was held in New Delhi in November 2009. Who amongst the following represented India and also chaired the same ?
(A) S. M. Krishna
(B) Pratibha Patil
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Manmohan Singh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
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