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Showing posts with label EXAM SOLVED QUESTION PAPER. Show all posts
Showing posts with label EXAM SOLVED QUESTION PAPER. Show all posts

Sunday, July 11, 2010

R.A.S. Solved Model Practice Test Paper : 2010 (Zoology)

R.A.S. Solved Model Practice Test Paper

ZOOLOGY

1. Among the following foods, which is the most appropriate for a desert mammal for the regulation of its water balance ?
(a) Carbohydrate-rich cereals
(b) Oil-rich seeds
(c) Protein-rich pulses
(d) Both carbohydrate and protein-rich foods

2. Consider the following components used in electron transport system that act in a sequential manner:
1. NAD
2. Cytochrome-c
3. Cytochrome-a
4. FAD
What is the correct sequence of the above?
(a) 1—4—2—3
(b) 3-4—2—1
(c)1—2–4—3
(d) 2—1-3-4

3. A person observing prolonged fast will excrete, which one of the following in urine?
(a) Fat
(b) Amino acids
(c) Albumin
(d) Ketone bodies

4. Consider the following statements; in citric acid cycle
1. three hydride ions (hence, six electrons) are transferred to three NAD+ molecules
2. one pair of hydrogen atoms (hence, two electrons) is transferred to one NADP +molecule
3. one pair of hydrogen atoms (hence, two electrons) is transferred to one FAD molecule
4. one NADH molecule is utilized in the process
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)1 and 4
(d)2 and 4

5. Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids especially cortisol and cortisone causes
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) adrenogenital syndrome
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) testicular feminization

6.Kidney is involved in the synthesis of
(a) calbindin for calcium absorption
(b) calcitriol for calcium homeostasis
(c) cholecalciferol for bone formation
(d) calcitonin for phosphorus metabolism

7. Which one of the following is correct in ion exchange during
impulse conduction?
(a) Sodium pump stops working
(b) 3 Na+ are pumped in and 2K + pumped out
(c) 3 Na+ are pumped out for every 2K+ pumped in
(d) 1Na+ replaces 1 K+

8. What is the difference between substrate level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation?
(a) Energy released by flow, electrons is utilized in oxidative phosphorylation for the synthesis of ATP but not in
substrate level phosphorylation
(b) ATPs are produced by oxidative phosphorylation but not by substrate level phosphorylation
(c) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs only under non-aerobic condition but not oxidative phosphorylation
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation requires more energy for synthesis of ATP than substrate level phosphorylation

9. During transmission of nerve impulse, the membrane potential inside the cell is
(a) first negative, then positive and back negative
(b) first negative, then positive and remains positive
(c) first positive, then negative and remains negative
(d) first positive, then negative and back positive

10.During phosphogluconate pathway (HMP shunt), the monosaccharides formed along with CO2 are
(a) hexoses
(b) trioses
(c) tetroses
(d) pentoses

11.Long-chain fatty acids penetrate the inner mitochondrial membrane as derivatives of which one of the following?
(a) Carnitine
(b) Coenzyme-A
(c) Sialic acid
(d) Sphingosine

12. Consider the following statements:
Fibrinogen, the precursor of fibrin
1. consists of only primary structure
2. resembles fibrous proteins structurally
3. behaves like globular proteins in their solubility in aqueous
salt solutions
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1,2 and 3

13. Who among the following proposed the alpha-helix structure of proteins?
(a) Crick and Watson
(b) Pauling and Corey
(c) Nirenberg and Khorana
(d) Skoog and Miller

14.Maltose is formed by which glycosidic linkage?
(a) Glucose alpha 1—4 glucose
(b) Galactose alpha 1—4 glucose
(c) Glucose ?eta 1-4 galactose
(d) Glucose ?eta 1—4 glucose

15. Consider the following:
1. Succinate dehydrogenase
2. NADH dehydrogenase
3. Cytochrome oxidase
4. Cytochrome-bc1 complex
What is the correct sequence of the above in the electron
transport chain?
(a) 2—4—1—3
(b) 2—1–4—-3
(c) 3-4—4—2
(d) 3—4—1—2

16. An allosteric inhibitor of enzyme action acts by combining with
(a) the catalytic site of the enzyme
(b) the non-catalytic site of the enzyme
(c) the substrate
(d) Both the substrate and the non-catalytic site of the enzyme

17. Which among the following are the enzymes leading to substrate level phosphorylation during glycolysis?
(a) Pyruvate kinase and enolase
(b) Pyruvate kinase and phosphoglycerokinase
(c) Triose phosphate dehydrogenase and phosphoglycerokinase
(d) Phosphoglycerokinase and phosphofructokinase

18 . The glands found on the edges of eyelids and help to keep the come surface moist are called
(a) ceruminous glands
(b) Zeis glands
(c) sudorific glands
(d) Meibomian glands

19. Consider the following:
1. Diarrhoea
2. Dementia
3. Dermatitis
4. Delinquency
Pellagra is characterized by which of the above?
(a) 1,2and4
(b)1,2and3
(c)2,3and4
(d)1,3and4

20 Which one of the following statement is not correct about metamorphosis in frog?
(a) The forelimbs, which develop under cover of the opercular membrane, break through to the exterior
(b) The middle ear develops in connection with the third pharyngeal pouch
(c) The eyes protrude on the dorsal surface of the head and develop eyelids
(d) The tongue is developed from the floor of the mouth

21. Which of the following changes are involved in retrogressive metamorphosis in ascidians?
1. Increase in the number of pharyngeal stigmata.
2. Complete disappearance of tail.
3. Disappearance of the endostyle and other parts of feeding mechanism.
4. Disappearance of the eye and the otocyst.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and3
(c)1,2and4
(d)2,3and4

22. Consider the following developmental stages of frog:
1.Neurula
2.Blastula
3.Morula
4. Gastrula
Which of the above lack a blastopore?
(a) 1 and4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d)2,3 and 4

23. Consider the following statements:
The upper layer of the area opaca in the blastoderm of the chick gives rise to
1.ectoderm
2. mesoderm
3. extra-embryonic endoderm
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d)1,2 and 3

24. Consider the following statements on extra-embryoniic membranes in chick:
1. Allantois has inner layer of endoderm and outer layer of splanchnic mesoderm
2. Yolk sac has an inner layer of endoderm and outer layer of splanchnic mesoderm.
3. Allantois has inner layer of splanchnic mesoderm and outer layer of endoderm.
4. Yolk sac has inner layer of splanchnic mesod6rm and outer layer of endoderm.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)3 and 4
(d)1 and 4

25. Consider the following statements:
1: By examining embryos and foetal stages of a vertebrate group, it is impossible to identify the group to which they belong.
2. Structural similarities exist in embryonic and larval stages, which are not apparent in adults.
3. During the development, chick first resembles a fish, then an amphibian and later a reptile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d)1,2 and 3

26. What is common in the scientific contributions of scientists, viz, Francesco Redi, Lazzaro Spallanzani and Louis Pasteur?
(a) Their studies have conclusively proved that higher forms of organisms have not evolved from viruses
(b) They have provided experimental evidences disproving the theory of spontaneous generation of organisms
(e) They have shown that viruses exhibit features of both living organisms and non-hying things
(d) They have shown that most bacteria are heterotrophic in their nutrition

27.The main contributions of Stephen J Gould to the evolutionary theory is the proposition that
(a) most evolutionary changes are principally the outcome of gradual accumulation of small inherited variations
(b) Mendelian mechanism cannot be an important element in directing evolutionary changes
(c) certain character show a sustained tendency to develop along an evolutionary line
(d) most evolutionary changes have consisted of rapid outbursts of speciation alternating with long periods during, which the individual species remained virtually unmodified

Which of the following groups of animals studied by Darwin in his visit to Galapagos led him to advance his theory of evolution?
(a) Flightless birds, giant iguana lizard and cave-dwelling fishes
(b) Finches, echidnas and cave-dwelling newts
(c) Giant land tortoises, armadillos and opossurns
(d) Finches, giant iguana lizard and giant land tortoises

28.Which of the following groups of animals studied by Darwin in his visit to Galapagos led him to advance his theory of evolution?
(a) Flightless birds, giant iguana lizard and cave-dwelling fishes
(b) Finches, echidnas and cave-dwelling newts
(c) Giant land tortoises, armadillos and opossums
(d) Finches, giant iguana lizard and giant land tortoises

29. Consider the following statements:
1. The Neanderthal man was thick- muscular, relatively short with a large nose and strong jaws.
2. The Neanderthal man inhabited sub-Saharan Africa about 50000 years ago.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

30. The ancestral horse Eohippus of Eocene period shows, which one of the following adaptations in limbs for speed?
(a) 4 digits in forelimbs and 3 digits in hind-limbs
(b) 3 digits in forelimbs and 4 digits in hind-limbs
(c) 4 digits in forelimbs and 4 digits in hind-limbs
(d) 3 digits in forelimbs and 3 digits in hind-limbs

31. Which one of the following is not a fossorial adaptation?
(a) T—shaped episternum
(b) Fusion of cervical, sacral and lumbar vertebrae
(c) Keeled sternum
(d) Highly developed tactile sense

32. ‘Project Musk Deer’ was launched in 1974 in ?
(a) Dachigam national park
(b) Kedarnath national park
(c) Corbett national park
(d) Pine valley national park

33. The Gangetic dolphin belongs to the genus
(a) Platanista
(b) Pelphinus
(c) Balaenoptera
(d) Phocaena

34 Consider the following-statements:
1. The Pygmy Hog (Sus salvanius), the smallest wild pig, is an inhabitant of eastern Himalayan foothills.
2. The Mouse Deer (Tragulus meminna), a tiny ruminant, inhabits the forested areas of southern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both I and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2

35. The Eravikulam national park is famous for its
(a) Gaur
(b) Lion-tailed Macaqua
(c) Nilgiri Tahr
(d) Great Indian Bustard

36. Which one of the following is the most productive aquatic ecosystem?
(a) Coral reef ecosystem
(b) Estuarine ecosystem
(c) Riverine ecosystem
(d) Pond ecosystem

37.Consider the following marine organisms:
1.Ammodytes
2.Calanus
3. Clupea
4. Chaetoceros
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the food chain formed by these organisms beginning with the producer?
(a) 2—4—1—3
(b) 4—2—3—1
(c) 4—2—1—3
(d)1 –4—3—2

38. A genetically different population of a species colonizing different habitats is known as
(a) ecophene
(b) ecotype
(c) ecological equivalent
(d) ecad

39.Which one of the following is found in eastern Himalayan sub-region?
(a) Brown goral
(b) Markhor
(c) Ibex
(d) Tahr

40. In warm-humid climate many mammals, birds and insects are darkly coloured than their counterparts living in cool-dry climate. This is an example of
(a) Jordan’s rule
(b) Gloger’s rule
(c) Bergmann’s rule
(d) Allen’s rule

41. Indian wild ass comes under, which Schedule of Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972?
(a) I
(b)II
(c) III
(d) IV

42.Which one of the following kinds of substances contribute significantly in increasing the phosphate concentration during eutrophication?
(a) Detergents
(b) Disinfectants
(c) Organochlorines
(d) Synthetic polymers

43.Methaemoglobinemia is caused due to the presence of in excess of which of the following in Drinking water?
(a) Iron
(b) Nitrate
(e) Phosphate
(d) Copper

44. Which one among the following is the largest wetland?
(a) Pulicat lake
(b) Kaliveli tank
(c) Chilika lake
(d) Vedanthangal

45. Bombykol is a/an
(a) hormone
(b) parasite
(c) pheromone
(d) enzyme

46.Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) All sponges are exclusively marine
(b) Amphiblastula is a landform of certain sponges
(c) Calcareous and siliceous spicules are found in many sponges
(d) All sponges are sessile

47. With reference to coelenterates consider the following
features:
1. Polyp forms.
2. Strongly developed stomodaeum and possessing siphonoglyphs.
3. Well-developed mesoglea containing fibrous connective tissue and amoeboid cells
Which one of the following pairs of coelenterates represents the above features?
(a) Obelia and Aurelia
(b) Physalia and Vellela
(c) Polyorchis and Parpita
(d) Zooanthus and Alcyonium

48. The sting of honey bee is a modified organ of which of the following?
(a) Mandibles
(b) Labellum
(c) Ovipositor
(d) Proboscis

49. Consider the following species of prawn:
1. Penaeus indicus
2. Penaeus monodon
3. Parapenaeopsis stylifera
4. Macrobrachium rosenbergii
Which of the above is/are cultured in freshwater?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d)3 and 4

50. Among the following zooplanktons, which one is not a rotifer?
(a) Brachionus
(b) Asplanchna
(c) Stenocypris
(d) Lecane

:: Answers ::

1 a  2 a 3 d 4 b 5 c 6 b 7 c 8 a 9 a 10 d 11 a 12 c 13 b 14 a 15 b 16 b 17 b 18 c 19 b 20 b 21 d 22 b 23 c 24 a 25 c  26 b 27 d 28 d 29 a  30 a 31 c 32 b 33 a 34 c 35 a 36 a 37 c 38 b 39 a 40 d 41 a 42 a 43 b 44 c 45 c 46 a 47 a 48 c 49 d 50 d

BEL Probationary Engineers (PE) General Aptitude Solved Test Paper : 2010

BEL Probationary Engineers (PE) General Aptitude Solved Test Paper : 2010

1. In which of the following movements ‘Vande Mataram’ was adotped for the first time as a slogan for agitation?
(A) Revolt of 1857
(B) Partition of Bengal in 1905
(C) Non-cooperation Movement in 1922
(D) Quit India Movement in 1942

2. Who warned Gandhiji not to encourage fanaticism of Muslim religious leaders and their followers?
(A) Agha Khan
(B) AjmaI Khan
(C) Hasan Imam
(D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

3. Which one of the following is not correct about the Congress Session.of Lucknow, 1916?
(A) Ambika Charan Majumdar was not the president of this session
(B) In this session the reunion between the liberal and the extremist was established
(C) Mahatma was apprised the problems of the peasants Champaran for the first time
(D) None of the above

4. Kanpur conspiracy case was against the leaders of?
(A) Khilafat Movement
(B) Non-cooperation Movement
(C) Communist Movement
(D) Revolutionary Movement

5. In India “Currency Notes issue system” is based on?
(A) Minimum reserve system
(B) Proportional reserve system
(C) Fixed exchange rate system
(D) Full convertibility system

6. ‘Disguised’ unemployment means?
(A) Persons with no jobs
(B) Unemployment among house wives
(C) Unemployment among per sons above 60 years pf age
(D) Employment of more persons in a job which lesser number of persons can perform

7. Which of the following statements are true about the income tax in India?
1. It is a progressive tax,
2. It is a direct tax.
3. It is collected by the Government.
4. It is a proportional tax Select the correct answer from the code given below
Codes:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1,2and3only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

8. ‘SIDBI’ has been established to
(A) Finance small scale industries
(B) Finance cottage industries
(C) Finance large scale industries
(D) Finance public sector under takings

9. Gangubai Hangal, who died a few months ago, was a?
(A) Classical singer
(B) Dancer
(C) Painter
(D) Sitar player

10. Deep Joshi has recently been given Raman Magsaysay Award in the category of?
(A) Government service
(B) Public service
(C) Community leadership
(D) Emergent leadership

11. The missing number in the following series:
5,10,13,26,29, 58, 61,…
Is?
(A) 122
(C) 128
(B) 125
(D) 131

12. If 2 jeans and 3 shirts cost Rs. 4,000 and jeans and 2 shirts cost Rs. 3,500, how much does a jeans cost?
(A) Rs. 1,500
(B) Rs 1,000
(C)Rs. 500
(D) Rs. 2,000

13. Which one of the following expresses error in computer data?
(A) chip
(B) byte
(C) bug
(D) bit

14.Assertion (A) Graphite is a good lubricant.
Reason (R) Graphite is good conductor of electricity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (A) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (A) are true but (H) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (A) is true

15. Acid rain is caused by pollution ot environment by?
(A) Carbon dioxide and Nitrogen
(B) Carbon monoxide and Carbon dioxide
(C) Ozone and Carbon dioxide
(D) Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide

16.Which one of the following is called the ‘metal of future’?
(A)Copper
(B) Iron
(C)Titanium
(D) Aluminum

17. The earliest coins of India were made of ?
(A)Copper
(B) Gold
(C)Lead
(D) Silver

18. The Mongols appeared for the first time on the banks of Indus during the reign of?
(A) Balban
(B) Iltutrnish
(C) Qutubuddin Aibak
(D) Razia

19. The first woman ruler of medieval India was?
(A) Chand Bibi
(B) Durgavati
(C) Noorjahan
(D) Razia

20. The Moplah Rebellion (1921) took place in?
(A) Malabar
(B) Marathawada
(C) Telengana
(D) Vidarbha

21. Which part of the Constitutions of India has been described as the:
Soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Directive principles of State policy
(B) Fundamental rights
(C) Preamble
(D) Right to constitutional remedies

22. The first state to implement the Panchayati Raj System in India was?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Karnataka

23. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Any High Court
(D) All of the above

24. Consider the following statements about the Governor of a State
1. He is appointed by the President.
2. He holds office at the pleasure of the President.
3. The executive power of the: State vests in him.
4. Normally he holds office for five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) l and 2
(B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 1,2 and 4
(D) All the four

25. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A)Ahmedabad—Sabarmati
(B) Lucknow —Gomti
(C) Bhubaneshwar—Mahanadi
(D) Ujjain-Shipra

26.Dilwara Jain temple is situated at?
(A)Palitana
(B) Mount Abu
(C)Sonagiri
(D) Girinarji

27. Which one of the following is the biggest shipping canal in the world?
(A) Kiel Canal
(B) Panama Canal
(C) Soo Canal
(D) Suez Canal

28. Where was the battle of Plassey fought?
(A)Karnal
(B) Haldighati
(C)Mysore
(D) Bengal

29. Who was the first Vice-President of India?
(A)Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B)Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C)C. V. Raman
(D)Jawahar Lal Nehru

30.. What was the reason behind the mutiny of 1857?
(A) Cartridge containing fat
(B) Frustration in soldiers
(C) Failure of British Government
(D) Administrative research

31.. Which of the following is UHF?
(A) 40MHz
(C) 400 KHz
(B) 400 MHz
(D) 40 KHz

32.. Mass of a particle is m and its momentum is p. Its kinetic energy will be?
(A)mp
(B) ppm
(C) pp/m
(D) pp/2m

33. SI . unit of power is ‘watt. It is equivalent to which of the follow ing?
(A) Kgms-2
(B)Kgm-2s-2
(C) Kgm-2s-3
(D) None of these

34. Who among the following cricketers scored the highest runs?
(A) Brien Lara
(B) Sanat Jaysurya
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Virendra Sehwag

35. Which is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

36. Who was the founder of Pakistan ?
(A) Mohammad Ali Jinna
(B) Liyaquat AIi Khan
(C) Gaffar Khan
(D) Benazir Bhutto

37. Who invented television?
(A)J. L. Baird
(B) Lawrance -
(C) Frederick Trechithic
(D) King Gillette

38. Who invented wireless?
(A)Marconi
(B)Charles Caterin
(C)George Cayley
(D)Zenobe Gramme

39 Which of the following was the battle strategy of Shivaji against Mughals?
(A) Alert army
(B) Large army
(C) Political monopoly
(D) Guerilla warfare

40. Find out the next term of the series?
1,2,4,7,11,………
(A)16
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 4

41. Which of the following cities is termed as the Pink city?

(A) Jaipur
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Ajrner
(D) Delhi

42. Who wrote the Meghdoot?
(A)Kalidas
(B) Vatsyayan
(C) Chanakya
(D) Premchand

43. Which of the following is a creation of Maithili-Sharan Gupta?
(A)Saket
(B) Urvashi
(C) Prempachisi
(D) Gatha

44. Which is the longest railway line of the world?
(A) Trans-Siberian
(B) Trans-Canadian
(C) Orient Railway line
(D) Railway line from London to Paris

45. Which of the following states has the highest number of voters?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Gujarat

ANSWERS

1 B 2 B 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 D 7 B 8 A 9 A 10 C 11 A 12 C 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 C 17 A 18 B 19 D 20 A 21 D 22 B 23 B 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 D 29 A 30 B 31 B 32 D 33 C 34 C 35 B 36 A 37 A 38 A 39 D 40 A 41 A 42 A 43 A 44 A 45 A

Saturday, January 9, 2010

BANK OF BARODA PO EXAM SOLVED QUESTION PAPER



Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers Exam., 2008
(Held on 5-10-2008)
General Socio-Economic & Banking Awareness: Solved Paper


1. RBI’s open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate—
(A) Liquidity in the economy
(B) Prices of essential commodities
(C) Inflation
(D) Borrowing power of the banks
(E) All the above


2. When more than one banks are allowing credit facilities to one party in coordination
with each other under a formal arrangement, the arrangement is generally known as—
(A) Participation
(B) Consortium
(C) Syndication
(D) Multiple banking
(E) None of these


3. Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit
expansion in the economy means —
(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Issuance of different types of bonds
(C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(E) None of these


4. The bank rate means—
(A) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers
(B) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers
(C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits
(D) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks
(E) None of these


5. What is an Indian Depository Receipt ?
(A) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank
(B) A depository account with any of Depositories in India
(C) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company
(D) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
(E) None of these


6. An instrument that derives its value from a specified underlying (currency, gold, stocks etc.) is known as—
(A) Derivative
(B) Securitisation Receipts
(C) Hedge Fund
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding


7. Fiscal deficit is—
(A) total income less Govt. borrowing
(B) total payments less total receipts
(C) total payments less capital receipts
(D) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing
(E) None of these


8. In the Capital Market, the term arbitrage is used with reference to—
(A) purchase of securities to cover the sale
(B) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase
(C) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price
(D) variation in different markets
(E) Any of the above


9. Reverse repo means—
(A) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country through purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Absorption of liquidity from the market by sale of Govt. securities
(C) Balancing liquidity with a view to enhancing economic growth rate
(D) Improving the position of availability of the securities in the market
(E) Any of the above


10. The stance of RBI monetary policy is—
(A) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth
(B) improving credit quality of the Banks
(C) strengthening credit delivery mechanism
(D) supporting investment demand in the economy
(E) Any of the above


11. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage—
(A) Currency risk
(B) interest rate risk 
(C) currency and interest rate risk
(D) cash flows in different currencies
(E) All of the above


12. ‘Sub-prime’ refers to—
(A) lending done by banks at rates below PLR
(B) funds raised by the banks at sub-Libor rates
(C) Group of banks which are not rated as prime banks as per Banker’s Almanac
(D) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not meeting with normally required credit appraisal standards
(E) All of the above


13. Euro Bond is an instrument—
(A) issued in the European market
(B) issued in Euro Currency
(C) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these


14. Money Laundering normally involves—
(A) placement of funds
(B) layering of funds
(C) integration of funds
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)


15. The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to—
(A) strengthen international economic co-operation and to help create a more stable and prosperous global economy
(B) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation
(C) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)


16. Capital Market Regulator is—
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI


17. In the term BRIC, R stands for—
(A) Romania
(B) Rajithan
(C) Russia
(D) Regulation
(E) None of these


18. FDI refers to—
(A) Fixed Deposit Interest
(B) Fixed Deposit Investment
(C) Foreign Direct Investment
(D) Future Derivative Investment
(E) None of these


19. What is Call Money ?
(A) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night
(B) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days
(C) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7 days
(D) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 14 days
(E) None of these


20. Which is the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ ?
(A) Reliance
(B) TCS
(C) HCL
(D) Infosys
(E) None of these


21. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) SIDBI
(D) SEBI
(E) None of these


22. Who is Brand Endorsing Personality of Bank of Baroda ?
(A) Juhi Chawla
(B) Kiran Bedi
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Kapil Dev
(E) None of these


23. The branding line of Bank of Baroda is—
(A) International Bank of India
(B) India’s International Bank
(C) India’s Multinational Bank
(D) World’s local Bank
(E) None of these


24. The logo of Bank of Baroda is known as—
(A) Sun of Bank of Baroda
(B) Baroda Sun
(C) Bank of Baroda’s Rays
(D) Sunlight of Bank of Baroda
(E) None of these


25. Which of the following statements(s) is/are True about the exports of China which is a close competitor of India ?
(i) China’s economic success is basically on the fact that it exports cheaper goods to rich
nations like the USA, etc.
(ii) In the year 2007 China’s exports became almost 40% of its GDP.
(iii) When compared to India China’s share in the World Exports is more than 30%
whereas India’s share is mere 6% of the global exports.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these


26. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is money laundering. Which of the following acts/norms are launched by the banks to prevent money laundering in general ?
(A) Know Your Customer Norms
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Negotiable Instrument Act
(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
(E) None of these


27. Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M-Banking Facility to their customers. What is the full form of ‘M’ in ‘M-Banking’ ?
(A) Money
(B) Marginal
(C) Message
(D) Mutual Fund
(E) Mobile Phone


28. Which of the following is/are true about the ‘Sub-Prime Crisis’ ? (The term was very much in news recently.)
(i) It is a mortgage crisis referring to credit default by the borrowers.
(ii) Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk
borrowers.
(iii) This crisis originated because of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these


29. Which of the following is not the part of the structure of the Financial System in India ?
(A) Industrial Finance
(B) Agricultural Finance
(C) Government Finance
(D) Development Finance
(E) Personal Finance


30. Which of the following is not the part of the scheduled banking structure in India ?
(A) Money Lenders
(B) Public Sector Banks
(C) Private Sector Banks
(D) Regional Rural Banks
(E) State Co-operative Banks


31. As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt. ?
(i) Tax on Income
(ii) Tax on Expenditure
(iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset
(iv) Tax on Goods and Services
(A) Both (i) and (iii) only
(B) Both (ii) and (iv) only
(C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) None of these


32. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives ?
(i) To attract foreign investment directly.
(ii) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals.
(iii) To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these


33. Which of the following groups of countries has almost 50% share in global emission of carbon every year ?
(A) US, China, India, South Africa
(B) India, China, Russia, Britain
(C) South Africa, Nepal, Myanmar
(D) US, Russia, China & India
(E) None of these


34. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Nuclear Bank’ floated by International Atomic Energy Agency ?
(i) It is a nuclear fuel bank to be shared by all the nations jointly.
(ii) It is a facility to help nations in enrichment of uranium.
(iii) It is an agency which will keep a close vigil on the nuclear programme of all the
nations.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii) only
(D) Only (iii)
(E) Both (i) and (ii) only


35. Many times we read about Future Trading in newspapers. What is ‘Future Trading’ ?
(i) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges wherein it is decided to
purchase the stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year.
(ii) It is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an underlying asset in the future
at a predetermined price.
(iii) It is an agreement between stock exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of each
other under any circumstances in future or for a given period of time.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these


36. Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes/indicators ?
(A) Cost of Living Index (COLI)
(B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(C) Gross Domestic Product
(D) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
(E) None of these


37. As per the reports published in the newspapers a section of society staged a demonstration at the venue of the G-8 Summit recently. What was/were the issues towards which these demonstrators were trying to draw the attention of G-8 leaders ?
(i) Food shortage which has taken 50 million people in its grip.
(ii) Inflation which has gone up substantially across the Globe.
(iii) USA’s consistent presence in Iraq.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) Both (i) and (ii) only
(E) None of these


38. Hillary Clinton formally suspended her campaign to ensure election of who amongst the following for the next President of USA ?
(A) George Bush
(B) Barack Obama
(C) John McCain
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) None of these


39. Hugo Chavez whose name was recently in news is the—
(A) President of Congo
(B) Prime Minister of Uganda
(C) President of Venezuela
(D) Prime Minister of Brazil
(E) None of these


40. The Govt. of India has raised the amount of the Loan Waiver to the farmers by 20%. Now the amount is nearly—
(A) Rs. 60,000 crore
(B) Rs. 65,000 crore
(C) Rs. 72,000 crore
(D) Rs. 76,000 crore
(E) Rs. 80,000 crore


41. Delimitation Commission has made a recommendation that next Census should be Panchayat-wise. When is the next Census due ?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013
(E) 2015


42. The World Health Organisation has urged that advertisements of which of the following should be banned to protect youth from bad effects of the same ?
(A) Tobacco
(B) Alcoholic drinks
(C) Junk Food
(D) Soft drinks with chemical preservatives
(E) None of these


43. Which of the following countries has allocated a huge amount of US $ 10 billion to provide relief to its earthquake victims ?
(A) Japan
(B) South Korea
(C) China
(D) South Africa
(E) None of these


44. India and Nepal have many agreements on sharing of the water of various rivers. Which of the following rivers is not covered under these agreements ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Gandak
(C) Ganga
(D) Mahakali
(E) All these rivers are covered


45. Which of the following names is not closely associated with space programme of India or any other country ?
(A) CARTOSAT
(B) NLS – 5
(C) RUBIN – 8
(D) GSLV
(E) SCOPE


46. Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Football
(E) Golf


47. Which of the following was the theme of the Olympic Torch ?
(A) Journey of Harmony
(B) Green World Clean World
(C) Journey of Peace
(D) Journey for Hunger-free World
(E) None of these


48. Which of the following schemes is not a social development Scheme ?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Mid Day Meal
(C) Bharat Nirman Yojana
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(E) All are social schemes


49. Which of the following is not a member of the ASEAN ?
(A) Malaysia
(B) Indonesia
(C) Vietnam
(D) Britain
(E) Singapore


50. Which of the following Awards are given for excellence in the field of Sports ?
(A) Kalinga Prize
(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Pulitzer Prize
(E) None of these


Answers :
1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (E)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (E) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (D) 29. (E) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (C
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